Part 1:
The first section of Burke which is
from Part two from his essay starting on page 366 talks about the causes of the
sublime which he says are terror and vastness. In part three he talks about
beauty and then he compares the beautiful to the sublime. In part five he talks
about words and how they can also cause the sublime.
In Kant’s section, starting on 371,
he talks about how each person experiences the sublime and the beautiful in
different ways. Like Burke he views the
beautiful and the sublime two different aesthetics. And in his last section he
talks about national characteristics and how that relates to the beautiful and
the sublime.
Giplin’s section, starting on page
379, compares and contrasts beauty and the picturesque. This leads into the
section on paintings.
Part 2:
In part three of Burke, under The
Real Cause of Beauty, he says that he has “endeavoured to show what beauty is
not”, however he does not do this in the previous section; he defines beauty.
And after saying he will define beauty in The Real Cause of Beauty he gives a
very philosophical definition rather than a practical one.
Kant’s section on national
characteristics does not fit in to his first section and doesn’t make sense on
its own. It doesn’t seem to have a point and it gives very broad
generalizations.
Giplin’s section didn’t mention the
sublime at all and it’s only purpose in the collection seems to be to lead into
the nest section.
Part 3:
What is the purpose of Kant’s section on national
characteristics?
What is the connection between Burkes section five on words
and the other two sections?
Using the definitions given by Kant, Burke, and Giplin, does
Lines Written a Few Miles above Tintern
Abbey invoke the aesthetics of the sublime, the beautiful, or both?
Heather Philpot and Sarah Rund
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